The Biblical Concept Of Marriage Part 3
So, let us continue by taking a closer look at Matthew 19:3-6, which is a rather standard verse to quote for anti-polygamists, although they usually quote only verses 4 and 5.
"The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:3-6)
What we find in this case, and what is apparently rather difficult for people to comprehend, is that the context here is one of divorce, not of polygamy. The issue at hand is not of making, but of breaking, marriage covenants! Jesus is being specifically questioned about divorce, in order to tempt him, and to test his view on Old Testament law, which was a rather common thing for the Pharisees to attempt. His answer therefore refers to divorce, saying that a man and a woman, once having become “one flesh”, are joined in marriage by God, and that, since the beginning, this was meant to be permanent, and could only be broken as a result of marital unfaithfulness - covenant breaking* - on the part of the wife.
[Editor's note: The type of covenant breaking we are talking about here is rather peculiar, as it cannot be literal adultery that is meant. The punishment for adultery is death, not divorce. Neither can we talk about fornication here, that is, sexual contact with a man other than her husband to be before marriage because that would end in death too. Rushdoony suggests that the kind of sexual immorality, or harlotry, Jesus refers to here includes lesbianism as well as flirtatiousness. Think about it !]
If now a man takes another wife, he is not allowed to divorce, or put the first one away, as he has no grounds whatsoever to break his covenant with her, but has to take responsibility for both of them (Exo 21:10). This is entirely biblical, and was most assuredly understood by those that Jesus was addressing in Matthew. We really must assume that the Jews of that time had a definition of marriage that was biblical and included the possibility of plural marriage, and only run into problems when we assume otherwise. Jesus did not and could not have been doing away with plural marriage in Matthew, or anywhere else in scripture. Remember, his loyalty to OT law was tested repeatedly, and he upheld it every time…every little jot and tittle. Remember please, that Jesus was God, in the flesh, and that the Old Testament law given to Moses was his law.
Read on here:
The Biblical Concept Of Marriage Part 4
Go back to the beginning and Part 2 here:
